Question:

My question is to do with the issue of abrogation in the Qur’an. Please note my question is divided into a number of points I would like you to comment on, but one overall question. I do understand the reason for abrogation in the Qur’an; that there being large socio-political change in the society, or changes in the Ummah itself, certain things needed to be/were planned to be abrogated.

My overall question pertains to this: why exactly were abrogated ayahs left in the Qur’an and not taken out by the Prophet (p)? Please consider the sub-points below in your answer.

a. What use are the abrogated ayahs to us now?
b. How can we tell what is abrogated and what is not?
c. What if we followed a command in the Qur’an that was actually abrogated and we realized it not – would it be a sin?
d. Would this not pose a problem for a general reader of the Qur’an, that when reading it, he would not know what is abrogated and what is not, since he is not a scholar?
e. Would this not pose a further problem in that the Qur’an requires someone of a high scholastic level to “follow its guidance” and therefore not meant for the average layman?
f. What kind of ayahs were abrogated and why?
g. Is there an agreement to which ayahs have been abrogated and which have not, or is there ikhtilaaf on this issue?
h. Since the Qur’an came to abrogate the previous revelations/books, is it logical that the Qur’an should abrogate parts of itself?

Looking forward to your answer and comments.
Regards,
Anonymous

Answer:

Before answering your specific questions, I would like to clarify that there can be a number of reasons for the abrogation of any of the directives of the Qur’an. These reasons may range from the preparation and training of the addressees of the Qur’an for the final and permanent directives that were ultimately intended to the alteration of any of the directives, which were given due to a specific temporary situation.

Furthermore, in my understanding the issue of abrogation in the Qur’an should be seen in the light of the following principles:

The doctrine of abrogation is not applicable to any of the verses relating to beliefs and/or morality (Al-Hikmah); On the contrary, the concept of abrogation relates only to practical laws (Shari`ah) whether relating to the society or to the individual;

No verse of the Qur’an can be said to have been abrogated, except by an express verse of the Qur’an itself. Nothing outside the Qur’an can abrogate any verse of the Qur’an;

In all the cases of abrogation in the Qur’an, both the abrogated and the abrogating verses were preserved permanently;

In most of the cases of abrogation, the abrogating verse is placed immediately after the abrogated verse, which not only clarifies the status of both the verses with reference to abrogation, but also (in most of the cases) clarifying the reason for such abrogation.

Keeping this general clarification regarding the overall concept of abrogation in perspective, let us now turn to your specific questions:

You write:
What use are the abrogated ayahs to us now?

By keeping the abrogated verses preserved in the Qur’an, we are informed of the fact that God implemented His Shari`ah in its final shape with extreme wisdom and mercy. Whenever a directive required the preparation and training of the individual or the society, the merciful King made the necessary provisions for such preparation and training. This, in turn, provides us with the invaluable information that whenever we initiate a plan to implement the directives of the Shari`ah at a collective level, we should also take into consideration the prevalent situation of the society as well as the preparedness of the individuals and the collectivity to adhere to the directives of the Shari`ah. In all such cases where we feel that the ground needs to be prepared before the final implementation of the ultimate directives of the Shari`ah, we should first try to prepare the grounds for the revered purpose and only after the ground has been adequately prepared should we try to practically implement the directives of the Shari`ah in their final shape.

You write:
How can we tell what is abrogated and what is not?

No verse of the Qur’an should be considered as abrogated unless another verse of the Qur’an expressly implicates such abrogation. For instance, Al-Anfaal 8: 65 reads as:

“Prophet, rouse these believers to fight [the rejecters and remember that] if there are ten steadfast [believers,] they shall overpower a hundred [rejecters] and if there are a hundred [steadfast believers,] they shall overpower a thousand of those, who have rejected….”

The implication of the referred verse would be considered to have been permanent and unaltered, had it not been immediately followed by:

“Now, God has reduced [the responsibility] upon you. As He is aware that [now] there are weak among you. Therefore, [now] if there are a hundred steadfast among you, they shall overpower two hundred [rejecters] and if there are a thousand [steadfast] among you, they shall overpower two thousand, with the permission of God. Indeed, God is with the steadfast.” (Al-Anfaal 8: 66)

It is the express alteration of the directive through the latter verse, which tells us that the former verse is abrogated. In the absence of the latter verse, there would have been no question of considering the former as abrogated.

The same principle would apply to each and everyone of the Qur’anic verses.

You write:
What if we followed a command in the Qur’an that was actually abrogated and we realized it not – would it be a sin?

As I have clarified in a number of my previous responses, honest mistakes, due to ignorance and/or misunderstanding do not constitute a sin.

You write:
Would this not pose a problem for a general reader of the Qur’an, that when reading it, he would not know what is abrogated and what is not, since he is not a scholar?

As I have stated earlier, abrogated verses stand out in the Qur’an because generally, they are immediately followed by the abrogating verse. Therefore, there seems to be no reason to be sceptical about whether or not a particular verse of the Qur’an is abrogated or not.

Points ‘e’ and ‘f’ have already been answered.

You write:
Is there an agreement to which ayahs have been abrogated and which have not, or is there ikhtilaaf on this issue?

No. As in most of the other cases, the understanding of the scholars varies considerably on the issue. For a more detailed analysis of the various opinions on the issue, you may refer to Suyuti’s “Al-Ittiqaan”.

You write:
Since the Qur’an came to abrogate the previous revelations/books, is it logical that the Qur’an should abrogate parts of itself?

It would not be correct to say that the Qur’an came to abrogate the previous revelations/scriptures. The abrogation of some parts of the previous revelations/scriptures is, indeed, the result of an alternative directive given by the Qur’an, not the purpose of the revelation of the Qur’an.

As for whether or not is it logical for the Qur’an to abrogate parts of itself, I would suggest that an answer to this question should be sought through the analysis of the particular directives that were abrogated. As far as my personal understanding is concerned, I have not found a single abrogated directive in the Qur’an, which could not be logically explained in the light of the Qur’an itself.

I hope this helps.
Regards,
Moiz Amjad

30th October 2001