Question
Both the Qur’an and the Bible state that we should give freely to all those who ask (Qur’an 2: 177; Matthew 5: 42). Thus, whenever I have been asked by someone (usually beggars or other needy people), I have given something of my wealth. But my parents have objected to this, arguing that I should only give to those who seem worthy of receiving financial aid. I often wonder whether what I give will be put to good use too.
Just how literally is this command relating to alms-giving to be taken?
Thanks.
Reply
The referred command in the divine literatures inherently entails the condition that the person actually considers the beggar or the one asking for financial help is really in need of his help.
If we are in a position to help a person and also feel that person is truly in need of our help, then we should try not to refuse help to that person. In all such matters, it is ultimately the individual’s position and perception of the situation, which puts any moral responsibility on that individual.If we are to refuse then it is absolutely mandatory that we do it in the most appropriate manner.
I hope this helps.
Regards,
UIUK team
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